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September 20, 2007



My issue with Keen's book (the one that made me stop reading it) is his constant implication that the "Old Media" (my term) was entirely objective, agendaless, uninfluenced by profit, etc. That we could place our trust in the "old" methods of information distribution, which is not the case now. Really? There's never been a time when a wealthy individual or group of individuals owned a newspaper/TV/publishing empire so he/they could influence politics/society/the stock market? Did I just dream that?

Mike Gilronan

I won't profess to be an expert on media, but I understand that there were, in fact, "happier times" where ownership of media firms was regulated so that the problem with undue influence of a small group of owners was far less likely/acute as it has evolved to over the past several years. A great timeline is at http://www.pbs.org/now/politics/mediatimeline.html

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